HPU B.Ed Entrance Question Paper 2026: The Himachal Pradesh University (HPU) B.Ed Entrance Examination 2026 was successfully conducted on 15 June 2026 across various examination centres in the state. Thousands of candidates appeared for the entrance test seeking admission to the two-year Bachelor of Education (B.Ed.) programme.
The examination included questions from General Knowledge, Himachal Pradesh General Knowledge, Teaching Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, English, Hindi, and Current Affairs.
In this article, we are providing the HPU B.Ed Entrance Exam 2026 Question Paper PDF, Solved Question Paper, Answer Key, and detailed exam analysis. Candidates can use the solved paper and answer key to evaluate their performance and estimate their probable scores in the entrance examination.
Read More : HP B.Ed Entrance CET Syllabus 2027
HPU B.Ed Entrance Question Paper 2026
Download Question Paper PDFHPU B.Ed Entrance Question Paper 2026 (Solved)
Q1. In which of the following districts “Bhuri Singh Museum” is situated?
A) Kangra
B) Sirmaur
C) Mandi
D) Chamba
Answer: D) Chamba
Q2. When was Bilaspur merged into Himachal Pradesh?
A) 1st May, 1960
B) 1st November, 1966
C) 1st July, 1954
D) 1st September, 1972
Answer: C) 1st July, 1954
Q3. “The Lady of Keylong” refers to which of the following?
A) Glacier situated at an altitude of 6061 meters
B) Ladies of Lahaul Valley
C) An athlete from Lahaul-Spiti
D) None of these
Answer: A) Glacier situated at an altitude of 6061 meters
Q4. Which of the following is known as Monolithic Temples in Himachal Pradesh?
A) Masrur Temples, Kangra
B) Jwala Mukhi Temple, Kangra
C) Lakshmi Narayan Temple, Chamba
D) Bijli Mahadev Temple, Kullu
Answer: A) Masrur Temples, Kangra
Q5. When Himachal Pradesh got full statehood?
A) 15th April, 1948
B) 24th March, 1952
C) 25th January, 1971
D) 1st November, 1966
Answer: C) 25th January, 1971
Q6. Where is “The Great Himalayan National Park” situated in Himachal Pradesh?
A) Dharamshala
B) Kullu
C) Sirmaur
D) Mandi
Answer: B) Kullu
Q7. On which of the following rivers “Kol Dam Hydropower Project” is located?
A) Beas
B) Chenab
C) Satluj
D) Ravi
Answer: C) Satluj
Q8. Who are “Children of The State” in Himachal Pradesh?
A) Children belonging to scheduled caste category
B) Children belonging to scheduled tribe category
C) Mentally challenged children
D) Orphaned and abandoned children officially adopted by State Government
Answer: D) Orphaned and abandoned children officially adopted by State Government
Q9. What is the total geographical area of Himachal State?
A) 65673 square kms
B) 54673 square kms
C) 55673 square kms
D) 60673 square kms
Answer: C) 55673 square kms
Q10. Which of the following is a state bird of Himachal Pradesh?
A) Monal
B) Jajurana
C) Sparrow
D) Dove
Answer: B) Jajurana
Q11. According to 2011 census, what is the literacy rate of Himachal Pradesh?
A) 82.80%
B) 76.50%
C) 89.23%
D) 81.20%
Answer: A) 82.80%
Q12. When do we celebrate Himachal Day?
A) 15 April
B) 25 January
C) 1st September
D) 15 August
Answer: A) 15 April
Q13. Who among the following is known as “Pahari Gandhi” in Himachal Pradesh?
A) Baba Kanshi Ram
B) Raja Virbhadra Singh
C) Chanderdhar Sharma Guleri
D) Dr. Y.S. Parmar
Answer: A) Baba Kanshi Ram
Q14. Which of the following is a “Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve” in Himachal Pradesh recognized by UNESCO?
A) Pangi Valley
B) Sangla Valley
C) Kalpa Valley
D) Spiti Valley
Answer: D) Spiti Valley
Q15. Where is “Shanan Hydropower Project” situated?
A) Joginder Nagar in Mandi
B) Sunder Nagar in Mandi
C) Kinnaur
D) Kullu
Answer: A) Joginder Nagar in Mandi
Q16. Who is the ex-officio chairman of NITI Aayog?
A) President of India
B) Finance Minister of India
C) Governor Reserve Bank of India
D) Prime Minister of India
Answer: D) Prime Minister of India
Q17. Who is considered as the father of Indian Missile Technology?
A) Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B) Dr. U.S. Rao
C) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
D) Dr. Har Govind Khurana
Answer: C) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
Q18. Which of the following is a Green Planet in Solar System?
A) Mars
B) Uranus
C) Venus
D) Earth
Answer: B) Uranus
Q19. Sericulture is concerned with production of which of the following?
A) Jute
B) Mushrooms
C) Silk
D) Cotton
Answer: C) Silk
Q20. At which place on earth ‘Day and Nights’ are of equal length?
A) Equator
B) Poles
C) Prime Meridian
D) Nowhere
Answer: A) Equator
Q21. Which of the following instrument is used to record earthquakes?
A) Hydrograph
B) Planogram
C) Barograph
D) Seismograph
Answer: D) Seismograph
Q22. What will you call the energy radiated out in space by earth’s surface?
A) Solar Radiation
B) Terrestrial Radiation
C) Radioactivity
D) Insulation
Answer: B) Terrestrial Radiation
Q23. Which of the following is a highest peak in India?
A) Makadu
B) Kanchenjunga
C) Mount Everest
D) Nanda Devi
Answer: B) Kanchenjunga
Q24. Where is the National Dairy Research Institute located?
A) Anand
B) Karnal
C) Pant Nagar
D) Hissar
Answer: B) Karnal
Q25. Democracy does not stand for which of the following?
A) Liberty of the individual
B) Unrestricted freedom of the people
C) Rule of Law
D) Equal Rights for All
Answer: B) Unrestricted freedom of the people
Q26. Who has won Women One Day International Cup 2025?
A) South Africa
B) Australia
C) India
D) Sri Lanka
Answer: C) India
Q27. What was the major aim of ‘Operation Sindoor’?
A) Promote Tourism
B) Strengthen National Security
C) Organize Sports Events for Women
D) Improve Farming
Answer: B) Strengthen National Security
Q28. Where is the headquarter of UNESCO located?
A) Paris, France
B) Washington, USA
C) Sydney, Australia
D) New Delhi, India
Answer: A) Paris, France
Q29. Which powerful king was dethroned by Chandragupta Maurya to form the Mauryan Empire?
A) Dhana Nanda
B) Mahapadma Nand
C) Nandivardhana
D) Shishunga
Answer: A) Dhana Nanda
Q30. What is Artificial Intelligence?
A) Artificial Intelligence is a field that aims to make humans more intelligent.
B) Artificial Intelligence is a field that aims to improve security.
C) Artificial Intelligence is a field that aims to develop intelligent systems that work and react in the same way that humans do.
D) Artificial Intelligence is a field that aims to mine data.
Answer: C)
Q31. What are the facts relating to the problem of political interference?
A) Honest bureaucrats are always being troubled by politicians
B) Politicians are often misled and trapped by civil servants
C) Politicians and civil servants co-operate to gain mutual advantages
D) Politicians and civil servants use interference as an excuse for victimizing the common man
Answer: C)
Q32. How the civil servants pen their memoires after retirement?
A) Claim that they would have achieved outstanding success, if interference had not come in the way
B) Prove that constant political interference made it impossible for them to do anything properly
C) Complain that the credit for their achievement goes to dishonest politicians
D) Prove that people of inferior quality in the civil service bring about interference
Answer: A)
Q33. The existing system of administration seems to encourage civil servants:
A) To become self-styled heroes and boss over others
B) To present a glorious picture of the administration
C) To become self-centered and concerned mainly about their own gain
D) To become self-righteous and fight back mainly against corrupt politicians
Answer: C)
Q34. Which problem with the present administration needs urgent action?
A) A lack of accountability on the part of civil servants
B) A lack of control over the powers of politicians
C) Neglected ideals of self-righteousness
D) Complicated rules and procedures that greatly reduce efficiency
Answer: A)
Q35. What is the main remedy proposed by the writer?
A) The politicians should be made accountable for their decisions
B) The high level of protection enjoyed by civil servants should be reduced
C) The common man’s right to efficient and fair administration must be protected
D) Rules should be simplified, so that there is less scope for misuse
Answer: B)
Q36. From the words given below, find the word which has different meaning than others:
A) Ambiguous
B) Uncertain
C) Obvious
D) Undefined
Answer: C) Obvious
Q37. Identify the antonym for the word “Authentic”.
A) Trustworthy
B) Fictitious
C) Accurate
D) Tangible
Answer: B) Fictitious
Q38. Which of the sentences is grammatically correct?
A) Arun and Aparna are here.
B) Arun and Aparna is here.
C) Arun’s families is here.
D) All the above.
Answer: A)
Q39. “In spite of being warned repeatedly he failed to correct his ………… behaviour”.
A) Rational
B) Reasonable
C) Erratic
D) Important
Answer: C) Erratic
Q40. “When she fell down the ………… she received many ………….. but little help”.
A) Stairs, Stares
B) Stairs, Stairs
C) Stares, Stairs
D) Stares, Stares
Answer: A)
Q41. Which of the following sentence is correctly written?
A) Everyone must satisfy themselves about the truth of her statement.
B) Everyone must satisfy themselves on the truth of her statement.
C) Everyone must satisfy himself by the truth of her statement.
D) Everyone must satisfy himself about the truth of her statement.
Answer: D)
Q42. From the following words identify the correct antonym for the word ‘DISSENT’.
A) Renounce
B) Adopt
C) Agree
D) Give
Answer: C) Agree
Q43. Change the following sentence from passive to active voice:
Not a word was spoken by the criminal in self-defence.
A) The criminal spoke not a word in self-defence.
B) The criminal in self-defence spoke no word.
C) The criminal spoke in self-defence, not a word.
D) The criminal did not speak a word in self-defence.
Answer: D)
Q44. Identify the correct sentence from the following:
A) They have and are still doing excellent work.
B) They have and have still doing excellent work.
C) They have and have still been doing excellent work.
D) They have done and are still doing excellent work.
Answer: D)
Q45. Convert into indirect speech:
He said to me, “I will not give you any money without signing a contract.”
A) He said to me that he would not give me any money without signing a contract.
B) He said to me that he would not give me any money without him signing a contract.
C) He said to me that he will not give me any money without signing a contract.
D) He said to me that he would not give me money without signing a contract.
Answer: A)
Q46. From the words given below identify the correctly spelt word.
A) Perseverence
B) Preseverence
C) Perseverance
D) Persiverence
Answer: C) Perseverance
Q47. Sentence: I cannot PART WITH MY FRIEND.
A) Part away my friend
B) Part from my friend
C) Part my friend
D) No change
Answer: D) No change
Q48. Complete the sentence:
Her nobility and virtue …………
A) deserves respect
B) claims respect
C) deserve respect
D) respects
Answer: C) deserve respect
Q49. Complete the sentence:
The gifts were shared ………… all the children.
A) among
B) between
C) by
D) with
Answer: A) among
Q50. Which of following sentence uses correct pronoun?
A) Him and I are going to the party.
B) He and me are going to the party.
C) Me and her are going to the party.
D) She and I are going to the party.
Answer: D) She and I are going to the party
Passage for Questions 51 to 56
“न्यूयॉर्क टाइम्स की एक हालिया रिपोर्ट कहती है कि अमेरिकी कॉलेजों में, एशियाई मूल के छात्र न केवल अल्पसंख्यक ग्रुप के छात्रों से, बल्कि बहुसंख्यक गोरों से भी बेहतर परफॉर्म करते हैं। इनमें से कई छात्र भारतीय मूल के होंगे, और उनकी कामयाबी ऐसी है जिस पर हमें गर्व हो सकता है।
यह मुश्किल है कि ये टैलेंटेड युवा भारत वापस आएंगे, और यही जानी–पहचानी ब्रेन ड्रेन समस्या है। हालांकि, देश के पॉलिसी बनाने वालों के हालिया बयानों से पता चलता है कि इस मुद्दे को लेकर सोच बदल रही है। उनका सुझाव है कि ब्रेन बैंक, न कि ब्रेन ड्रेन, ज्यादा सही विचार है, क्योंकि विदेशों में भारतीयों की एक्स्पर्टीज सिर्फ दूसरी जगहों पर जमा होती है, खोती नहीं है…”
Q51. अमेरिकी कॉलेजों में छात्रों के कई ग्रुप में से एशियाई छात्रों :
A) के बारे में अक्सर न्यूयॉर्क टाइम्स जैसे अखबारों में लिखा जाता है।
B) पढ़ाई में सबसे सफल हैं।
C) ने साबित कर दिया है कि वे गोरों जितने ही अच्छे हैं।
D) अश्वेतों की तरह सिर्फ अल्पसंख्यक का दर्जा रखते हैं।
उत्तर: (B)
Q52. अमेरिका में एशियाई मूल के छात्रों में शामिल हैं :
A) भारत से काफी संख्या में
B) भारत से एक छोटा समूह
C) भारत के वे लोग जो बहुत गर्वित हैं
D) सबसे ज्यादा मेहनती भारतीय हैं।
उत्तर: (A)
Q53. आमतौर पर, अमेरिका में पढ़ रहे टैलेंटेड युवा भारतीय :
A) मेहनती होने की पहचान रखते हैं।
B) भारत के विकास में योगदान देने का मौका मिला है।
C) पॉलिसी में हाल के बदलावों की वजह से ब्रेन ड्रेन की समस्या हल हो सकती है।
D) भारत में अपना करियर बनाने के लिए वापस नहीं आएंगे।
उत्तर: (D)
Q54. आजकल ब्रेन बैंक की बात हो रही है। यह आइडिया है :
A) ब्रेन ड्रेन की समस्या का समाधान है।
B) एक नई समस्या है जो कुछ हद तक ब्रेन ड्रेन के कारण होती है।
C) विदेश में रहने वाले क्वालिफाइड भारतीयों की भूमिका को देखने का एक नया तरीका है।
D) रिसर्च और डेवलपमेंट को बढ़ावा देने के लिए फॉरेन एक्सचेंज रेमिटेंस आधारित है।
उत्तर: (C)
Q55. ब्रेन बैंक में सभी बैंकों की तरह कुछ कमियां हैं, जैसे कि :
A) बैंक की सेवाएं मुख्य रूप से उसके आस–पास के लोगों को मिलती हैं।
B) मल्टीनेशनल कंपनियों के इस जमाने में आस–पड़ोस के छोटे बैंक फायदेमंद नहीं हैं।
C) सिर्फ जमा की गई रकम ही निकाली और इस्तेमाल की जा सकती है।
D) किसी को भी अपनी संपत्ति बैंक में रखने के लिए मजबूर नहीं किया जा सकता है।
उत्तर: (A)
Q56. लेखक को लगता है कि NRIs भारत के लिए क्या करते हैं?
A) कई उपयोगी साइड–इफेक्ट्स होंगे।
B) उनकी मुख्य रुचि और चिंता नहीं होगी।
C) एक आम प्रोडक्ट के तौर पर दूसरे एशियाई देशों को फायदा पहुंचा सकता है।
D) अमेरिकी कॉलेजों को दुनिया भर में सेवा देने में मदद कर सकता है।
उत्तर: (B)
Q57. इनमें से कौन हिंदी भाषा की जननी है?
A) प्राकृत
B) पाली
C) संस्कृत
D) उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं
उत्तर: (C)
Q58. इनमें से किस शब्द में ‘प्रत्यय (Suffix)’ का इस्तेमाल हुआ है?
A) मौसेरा
B) आतपृ
C) विदेश
D) प्रबंध
उत्तर: (A)
Q59. ‘विद्वान’ का ‘स्त्रीलिंग’ क्या है?
A) विद्वता
B) विदुषी
C) विद्वानणी
D) उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं
उत्तर: (B)
Q60. “भूखे को खाना दो” वाक्य में कौन–सा कारक प्रयोग हुआ है?
A) कर्म
B) करण
C) संप्रदान
D) अपादान
उत्तर: (C)
Q61. ‘देवासुर’ में इनमें से कौन–सा समास है?
A) बहुब्रीहि
B) कर्मधारय
C) तत्पुरुष
D) द्वंद्व
उत्तर: (D)
Q62. ‘समास’ का क्या अर्थ है?
A) संक्षेप
B) विस्तार
C) विग्रह
D) विच्छेद
उत्तर: (A)
Q63. ‘वेतालपचीसी’ किस विशेषण का उदाहरण है?
A) अपूर्ण संख्या वाचक
B) पूर्ण संख्या वाचक
C) क्रमवाचक
D) समुदायवाचक
उत्तर: (D)
Q64. शीतल का विलोम क्या है?
A) दाहक/उष्ण
B) पावक
C) क्षयक
D) भक्षक
उत्तर: (A)
Q65. ‘उपेक्षा’ का विलोम क्या है?
A) परीक्षा
B) अपेक्षा
C) उत्प्रेक्षा
D) वीक्षा
उत्तर: (B)
Q66. “कुख्यात” का सबसे सही पर्यायवाची क्या है?
A) महान
B) पावन
C) समझदार
D) कलंकित
उत्तर: (D)
Q67. इनमें से कौन–सी ‘जटिलतम समस्या’ की सबसे करीबी परिभाषा है?
A) दुसाधया
B) सरल
C) उलझन में डालने वाली
D) अपरिचित
उत्तर: (C)
Q68. निम्नलिखित में कौन–सा शब्द भाववाचक संज्ञा है?
A) लोकेश
B) शैशव
C) साबुन
D) हिमालय
उत्तर: (B)
Q69. निम्न अनुच्छेद का संक्षेपण कीजिए :
“दूसरों को उपदेश देने वाले दुनिया में बहुत हैं। परंतु ऐसे लोग कम हैं जो स्वयं को उपदेश देते हैं और स्वयं को सुधारते हैं।”
A) सब दिन रहत न एक समान
B) पर उपदेश कुशल बहुतेरे
C) साँच को आँच नहीं
D) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर: (B)
Q70. निम्नलिखित में संयुक्त वाक्य कौन–सा है?
A) क्या शाम यहां से चला गया?
B) राहुल विद्यालय जाता है और मन लगाकर पढ़ता है।
C) आज बहुत ठण्ड है।
D) जो लड़का वहां बैठा है उसे मैं जानता हूँ।
उत्तर: (B)
Q71. Mohan introduced a boy as the son of the only daughter of the mother of his maternal uncle. How is Mohan related to that boy?
A) Son
B) Nephew
C) Uncle
D) Brother
Answer: (D) Brother
Q72. In a certain code ‘CODE’ is written as ‘DPEF’. How is ‘DEFENCE’ written in that code?
A) EFGFODF
B) BEFGFODF
C) ELDFSAP
D) HRAOSCV
Answer: (A)
Q73. Complete the series:
6, 12, 36, 144, 720, _______
A) 4320
B) 2843
C) 8249
D) 6825
Answer: (A)
Q74. In a basket there are 15 bulbs. All but four are fused. How many bulbs are actually fused?
A) 8
B) 7
C) 11
D) 10
Answer: (C)
Q75. Select the related word:
Typhoid : Intestine :: Tuberculosis : ?
A) Liver
B) Intestine
C) Lungs
D) Brain
Answer: (C) Lungs
Q76. From a certain point, Raghav walks 55 m towards the south. Then, he turns to his right and starts walking straight for another 55 m. Then he again turns to his left and walks for 40 m. Then he turns to his left and walks 55 m. How far is he now from the starting point?
A) 105 m
B) 85 m
C) 95 m
D) 100 m
Answer: (C) 95 m
Q77. Read the statements:
Some football players play cricket.
All cricket players play hockey.
Which statement logically follows?
A) No football player plays hockey
B) Some football players play hockey
C) All football players play hockey
D) All hockey players play football
Answer: (B)
Q78. Read the passage carefully and find which statement is true.
A) The author is of the opinion that rehearsal is important for musicians, actors and public speakers.
B) The author is of the opinion that rehearsal is less important for public speakers than for musicians and actors.
C) The author is of the opinion that rehearsal is more important only for musicians than public speakers.
D) The author is of the opinion that rehearsal is more important for actors than musicians.
Answer: (A)
Q79. ‘Some students were not involved in the strike’.
Which conclusion follows?
Some who were involved in the strike were students.
No student was involved in the strike.
At least one student was involved in the strike.
Some who were not involved in the strike were students.
A) 1 and 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 2 and 3
Answer: (C) 4
Q80. Three of the following words are alike in a certain way. Locate the word which is different from others.
A) Spectacles
B) Bifocals
C) Optical Readers
D) Goggles
Answer: (D)
Q81. (Question not provided in the original paper.)
Q82. Which of the following words does not belong with the others?
A) Guitar
B) Flute
C) Violin
D) Cello
Answer: (B)
Q83. CAREFUL is to CAUTIOUS :: BOASTFUL is to _______
A) Arrogant
B) Humble
C) Joyful
D) Suspicious
Answer: (A) Arrogant
Q84. Tadpole : Frog : Amphibian :: Lamb : Sheep : ?
A) Animal
B) Wool
C) Farm
D) Mammal
Answer: (D) Mammal
Q85. Choose the pair that best represents a similar relationship:
PEDAL : BICYCLE
A) INCH : YARDSTICK
B) WALK : SKIP
C) TIRE : AUTOMOBILE
D) OAR : CANOE
Answer: (D)
Q86. Which word could mean “bright sky”?
A) Cenotam
B) Mitltam
C) Raxmitl
D) Apiceno
Answer: (B)
Q87. Re-entry occurs when a person leaves his or her social system for a period of time and then returns. Which situation best describes Re-entry?
A) When he is offered better paying position, Javed leaves the restaurant he manages to manage another one in a neighbouring city.
B) Karan is spending his final year of college studying abroad in France.
C) Ajay is readjusting to civilian life after 2 years of overseas merchant navy service.
D) After 5 miserable months, Sneha decides that she can no longer share her room with roommate.
Answer: (C
Q88. Statement: The old order changed yielding place to new.
Conclusions:
(i) Change is the law of nature.
(ii) Discard old ideas because they are old.
A) Only conclusion (i) follows
B) Only conclusion (ii) follows
C) Either (i) or (ii) follows
D) Neither (i) nor (ii) follows
Answer: (A)
Q89. Violating an Apartment Lease occurs when a tenant does something prohibited by the binding document signed with the landlord.
A) Anil decides not to renew his lease next month.
B) Mayank has not paid the agreed monthly rent for the last three months.
C) Mark writes a complaint letter to his landlord.
D) Amit seeks legal advice regarding landlord negligence.
Answer: (B)
Q90. An informal gathering occurs when a group of people get together in a casual, relaxed manner.
A) A debating club meets every month.
B) After finding out about his salary raise, Atul and a few colleagues go out for a quick dinner after work.
C) Meena sends invitations for a tea party.
D) Seema often runs into Divya at a restaurant.
Answer: (B)
Q91. What was the major focus of Mudaliar Commission 1952?
A) University Education
B) Primary Education
C) Secondary Education
D) Pre-Primary Education
Answer: (C)
Q92. In which of the following establishment of DIETs was recommended?
A) National Policy on Education 1986
B) National Education Policy 2020
C) National Policy on Education 1968
D) None of These
Answer: (A)
Q93. Who was the chairman of University Education Commission, 1948?
A) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
B) Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
C) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Answer: (B)
Q94. The National Education Policy 2020 replaced which previous policy on education?
A) National Policy on Education 1968
B) National Policy on Education 1986
C) National Policy on Education 1952
D) National Policy on Education 2009
Answer: (B)
Q95. Which of the following is the vision of National Education Policy 2020?
A) Only (i)
B) Only (i) and (ii)
C) Only (ii)
D) All the above
Answer: (D)
Q96. Which committee was set up by Government of India in 1990 to review the implementation of National Policy on Education 1986?
A) Ramamurti Committee
B) Janardan Reddy Committee
C) Yashpal Committee
D) Kasturi Rangan Committee
Answer: (A)
Q97. Which initiative of UGC aims to address the challenges of “Digital Learning” in higher education?
A) Swachh Bharat Mission
B) National Digital Library of India
C) Digital India Programme
D) Indira Gandhi National Open University
Answer: (B)
Q98. Which commission/committee recommended the “Choice-Based Credit System” in Higher Education?
A) Justice Verma Commission on Teacher Education
B) Ramamurti Committee on Higher Education
C) Administrative and Academic Reforms Committee of the UGC
D) Chattopadhyay Committee on Teacher Education
Answer: (C)
Q99. Which report opens with the declaration:
“The destiny of India is now being shaped in her classrooms”?
A) Secondary Education Commission, 1952
B) National Education Policy, 2020
C) Kothari Education Commission, 1964
D) University Education Commission, 1948
Answer: (C)
Q100. What is the new name of Mid-Day Meal Scheme?
A) Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman
B) Pradhan Mantri Ann Yojana
C) Pradhan Mantri Nutritional Support
D) None of these
Answer: (A)
Q101. When was National Knowledge Commission established in India?
A) 2007
B) 2002
C) 1987
D) 2005
Answer: (D) 2005
Q102. When was the ‘National Institute of Open Schooling’ established by MHRD?
A) November 1989
B) November 1988
C) December 2002
D) November 1986
Answer: (A) November 1989
Q103. Which of the following Commissions of Education recommended the Three Language Formula?
A) Secondary Education Commission 1952
B) University Education Commission 1948
C) Hunter Education Commission 1882
D) Kothari Education Commission 1964
Answer: (D) Kothari Education Commission 1964
Q104. How many working days are compulsory for primary teachers in one academic year in the school under Right to Education Act 2009?
A) 180 days
B) 220 days
C) 200 days
D) 230 days
Answer: (C) 200 days
Q105. In which year RMSA was integrated into the Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan?
A) 2015
B) 2016
C) 2017
D) 2018
Answer: (D) 2018
Q106. What was the main recommendation of the Sargent Plan Report 1944?
A) To nationalize education in India
B) To recommend immediate independence
C) To promote religious education
D) To create a comprehensive post-war educational plan
Answer: (D)
Q107. Which of the following organizations are mainly associated with policy making and quality control aspects of teacher education?
A) CBSE
B) ICSSR
C) NCTE
D) None of these
Answer: (C) NCTE
Q108. Which of the following was a major recommendation of the Sadler Commission, 1917?
A) Separation of intermediate classes from universities
B) Establishment of separate board of secondary and intermediate education
C) Universities should be unitary, residential and teaching based
D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Q109. What is the name of Yashpal Committee Report 1993?
A) ICT in Teacher Education
B) Learning through Moral Values
C) Learning through Broadcasting
D) Learning without Burden
Answer: (D)
Q110. Which of the following was not a recommendation of Secondary Education Commission?
A) Establishment of multipurpose schools
B) Education for leadership
C) Education for vocational efficacy
D) Abolition of examinations
Answer: (D)
Q111. What will you call the expected outcomes of education?
A) Pedagogy
B) Aims
C) Learning
D) Evaluation
Answer: (B)
Q112. Which of the following is not the feature of learner-centered approach?
A) Active Learning
B) Passive Learning
C) Collaborative Learning
D) Individual Choice
Answer: (B)
Q113. What should be the aim of Ethical School Discipline?
A) Exclude as many students as possible
B) Focus solely on punishment
C) Prioritize school image over learners
D) Balance accountability with rehabilitation and support
Answer: (D)
Q114. What will you call a teacher’s belief that she/he can reach even the most difficult students and help them learn?
A) Teacher’s Knowledge
B) Teacher’s Understanding
C) Teacher’s Self-perception
D) Teacher’s Sense of Efficacy
Answer: (D)
Q115. What do you mean by CWSN?
A) Children With Single Need
B) Children With Special Needs
C) Children With Strong Needs
D) Children With Soft Needs
Answer: (B)
Q116. Which of the following is an example of a positive student-teacher relationship?
A) Teacher punishes students for asking questions
B) Teacher provides feedback and constructive criticism to students
C) Teacher humiliates his/her students
D) Teacher ignores the needs and concerns
Answer: (B)
Q117. Which of the following is a technique to provide right kind of support at right time to increase students competence?
A) Scaffolding
B) Assistance
C) Accommodation
D) Schemes
Answer: (A)
Q118. What will you call the technique of helping students grasp and retain information through visual and memorable stimulus?
A) Illustration
B) Explanation
C) Demonstration
D) Description
Answer: (A)
Q119. Which of the following is the pillar of teaching?
A) Curriculum
B) Instruction
C) Assessment
D) All the above
Answer: (D)
Q120. What should a teacher do in a learner-centered approach of teaching?
A) Explain concepts by using proper support material
B) Clarify concepts with the help of suitable examples
C) Facilitate student learning
D) Demonstrate in the class
Answer: (C)
Q121. Which of the following determines the effectiveness of curriculum?
A) Objectives
B) Design
C) Methods of Teaching
D) Evaluation
Answer: (D)
Q122. Which of the following is an indication of the quality of teaching?
A) Period of maintaining peace in the class
B) Standard of questions raised in the classroom
C) Standard of answers replied by the students in the class
D) Pass percentage of students
Answer: (B)
Q123. What will you call the ability of the learner to use the learnt material by making use of his/her previous knowledge?
A) Analysis
B) Synthesis
C) Application
D) Knowledge
Answer: (C)
Q124. Which of the following is an impediment in the development of creativity among students?
A) Acceptance of imaginative answers
B) Emphasis on brainstorming
C) Emphasis on convergent thinking
D) Tolerance to dissent
Answer: (C)
Q125. A child takes favourite book and retells the “STORY” by using pictures as cues. At what process/stage/component does he/she demonstrate?
A) Narrative
B) Syntactic Awareness
C) Emergent Reading
D) Phonographic Awareness
Answer: (C)
Q126. In a multicultural classroom, what should be the consideration of a teacher?
A) Reliability and validity of assessment tools
B) Socio-cultural context of students
C) Expectations of school administration
D) Standardization of assessment tools
Answer: (B)
Q127. Which of the following learner characteristics is highly related to teaching?
A) Prior experiences of the learner
B) Educational status of parents of the learner
C) Family size from which the learner comes
D) None of these
Answer: (A)
Q128. What is the main indicator of the effectiveness of teaching?
A) Students’ interests
B) Learning outcomes of students
C) Course Coverage
D) Use of teaching aids in the class
Answer: (B)
Q129. “Spare the rod and spoil the child” gives which of the following message?
A) Punishment in the class should be banned
B) Corporal punishment is not acceptable
C) Undesirable behaviour must be punished
D) All the above
Answer: (C)
Q130. When can a person enjoy teaching as a profession?
A) When she/he has full control over students
B) When she/he commands respect from students
C) When she/he is more qualified than her/his colleagues
D) None of these
Answer: (B)
Q131. What is the role of the teacher at higher education level?
A) Promote self-learning in students
B) Provide information to students
C) Encourage healthy competition among students
D) Help students in solving their problems
Answer: (A)
Q132. A teacher in a classroom has immediate control over which of following?
A) The audience, noise and the reception
B) The feedback, the technology and the audience
C) The communication channel, other communicators, and external factors
D) The self, selected methods of communication and the message to be communicated
Answer: (D)
Q133. Effective teaching is the function of which of the following?
A) Teacher’s Satisfaction
B) Teacher’s Commitment
C) Teacher’s liking for professional excellence
D) Teacher’s making students learn and understand
Answer: (D)
Q134. Which of the following public facility can be used for a student visit as an effective local learning resource?
A) Public Library
B) Museum
C) Local Fair
D) Power House
Answer: (B)
Q135. Why is school called a miniature society?
A) It is a group of diversified people
B) It is a particular group of humanity with shared customs
C) The students represent a cross section of society
D) Heterogeneous groups of students are there in the school
Answer: (C)
Q136. Which of the following is the most important factor for integration of technology in education?
A) Availability of Internet
B) Students’ IQ Level
C) Government Policy
D) Teacher’s Attitude
Answer: (D)
Q137. What do you mean by the term “Blended Learning”?
A) Mixing of subjects
B) Integration of traditional and online learning
C) Group Teaching
D) Outdoor Education
Answer: (B)
Q138. What is the main advantage of using ICT in teaching?
A) Reduces teacher workload
B) Enhances student engagement
C) Increases paper use
D) Limits access to information
Answer: (B)
Q139. What is the main objective of Comprehensive and Continuous Evaluation?
A) Maintaining desired standard of attainment
B) Making evaluation an integral part of the teaching-learning process
C) Providing scope for self-learning
D) None of these
Answer: (B)
Q140. Children with “mood swings” have which of the following issues?
A) Low satisfaction
B) Physical ailment
C) Mental health issues
D) Emotional issues
Answer: (D)
Q141. A child suffering from “Dysgraphia” has which of the following problems?
A) Unable to write constantly
B) Handwriting is clumsy and spaced improperly
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) None of these
Answer: (C)
Q142. Which of the following best reflects the essence of teacher empowerment?
A) Allowing teachers to solely focus on teaching
B) Providing teachers with opportunities to actively participate in setting school goals
C) Implementing rigid guidelines and regulations
D) Assigning tasks without considering individual strengths
Answer: (B)
Q143. There is a student who comes to school but does not attend certain classes. How will you handle this student?
A) Scold him
B) Complain to the guardians
C) Report to your principal
D) Try to know the causes of his behaviour and then provide appropriate help
Answer: (D)
Q144. Which of the following can adversely affect teaching environment?
A) Learner is motivated to write
B) Teacher is given freedom to use methods
C) Corporal punishment is always given
D) There are frequent meetings
Answer: (C)
Q145. In the existing provisions, who monitors the working of Elementary Schools?
A) School Management Committees
B) Mother Teacher Associations
C) Principals of Senior Secondary Schools
D) Gram Panchayats
Answer: (A)
Q146. A student complains against the teacher for showing favouritism in evaluation of scripts. How should the teacher deal with the student?
A) Adopt punitive measures
B) Show the student his answer book and few more
C) Reject allegations
D) Make efforts to clear his position
Answer: (B)
Q147. Which of the following is true about Smart Classroom?
A) It is a smart podium with a touch panel control system
B) It has PC/Laptop connection and DVD/VCR player
C) It has Document Camera and Specialized Software
D) All the above
Answer: (D)
Q148. How can a teacher establish good rapport with students?
A) By becoming an authority figure
B) Playing the role of a guide
C) Implementing rules strictly
D) Impressing the students with knowledge of the subject
Answer: (B)
Q149. What do you understand by better classroom management?
A) Proper planning and preparation of teaching aids
B) Effective group work and interaction among students
C) Punctuality of the teachers and ability to complete course work in time
D) All the above
Answer: (D)
Q150. Which of the following, when practiced with peers, enhances a teacher’s professional development?
A) Working in isolation
B) Engage in collaborative planning and sharing best practices
C) Ignoring colleagues
D) Minimum interaction with junior teachers
Answer: (B)
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